Bible Slavery v. American Slavery

[Crow]

I see "good" as the purpose of God, and "evil" as the violation of the purpose of God. In order to determine what is good or evil in a given situation is to evaluate the situation for what it is and then respond in a way which is parallel to God's purpose (objective evaluation). Subjective evaluations are not as helpful, in my view, because one's response is based on one's desires, which may be ok when picking an ice cream flavor, but not when on jury duty. Does this make sense, or do you need more clarity from me?

Please note, I do not believe that absolute moral judgements are synonomous with objective moral judgements, nor do I believe that absolute moral judgements are scriptural.

What is your stance on slavery? as the bible is quite clear that it is acceptable. In my opinion it is one of, if not the most immoral action a person can partake in.

Edit: not only is slavery acceptable in the bible but endorsed in the new and old testaments.

[Black36]

Biblical slavery is not synonomous with American slavery.

[Davin]

Do you have a definition for your use of the word "objective" in the context of the term "objective good"? Or at the least what you mean by the term "objective good".

[Whitney]

Biblical slavery is not synonomous with American slavery.

Both involved owning people.
Both involved beating people (legally).

Splitting hairs over a few small differences isn't going to make it sound any better.

[Black36]

Biblical slavery is not synonomous with American slavery.

Both involved owning people.
Both involved beating people (legally).

Splitting hairs over a few small differences isn't going to make it sound any better.

I would not call fundamental differences "hair splitting".

[Tank]

Biblical slavery is not synonomous with American slavery.

Both involved owning people.
Both involved beating people (legally).

Splitting hairs over a few small differences isn't going to make it sound any better.

I would not call fundamental differences "hair splitting".

Then what, in your opinion, are the fundimental differences?

[Stevil]

I see "good" as the purpose of God, and "evil" as the violation of the purpose of God. In order to determine what is good or evil in a given situation is to evaluate the situation for what it is and then respond in a way which is parallel to God's purpose (objective evaluation).

Why do you make god's purpose your purpose?
You can't possibly know what god's purpose is, and given that god is all powerfull (supposedly) then it would be reasonable to suggest that god is not constrained by a purpose.

[Sweetdeath]

Biblical slavery is not synonomous with American slavery.

Please explain to me how it is any different from ownership of a human being in any point in history?

[Black36]

Biblical slavery is not synonomous with American slavery.

Please explain to me how it is any different from ownership of a human being in any point in history?

How is having the option to go free after 7 years synonomous with what you are alluding too?

[Black36]

Biblical slavery is not synonomous with American slavery.

Both involved owning people.
Both involved beating people (legally).

Splitting hairs over a few small differences isn't going to make it sound any better.

I would not call fundamental differences "hair splitting".

Then what, in your opinion, are the fundimental differences?

Israelite slavery was not permanent, is one main difference. Voluntary choice to remain a slave after being offered freedom is another. American slavery did not have such options. Also, Israelite slaves were considered image bearers of God, American slaves were not.

[Sweetdeath]

Biblical slavery is not synonomous with American slavery.

Please explain to me how it is any different from ownership of a human being in any point in history?

How is having the option to go free after 7 years synonomous with what you are alluding too?

they are still being OWNED for at least seven years??

[Stevil]

Biblical slavery is not synonomous with American slavery.

Please explain to me how it is any different from ownership of a human being in any point in history?

How is having the option to go free after 7 years synonomous with what you are alluding too?

Yeah, so there, Hmmphf
After only 7 years they get the option of freedom, you see.
BIG difference.


Actually, it would be good if this slavery sub topic were split out, I was quite enjoying the origninal topic, this sub topic is not my cup of tea.

[Whitney]

Biblical slavery was not limited to self imposed indentured servitude:  http://www.gnpcb.org/esv/search/?q=Ex+21%3A7%2CNeh+5%3A5%2CEx+21%3A2-3

Jewish Children could be sold into slavery.  It is not clear if the 6 year rule applies in that case or not...and even if it did; that could leave some of them on the street without care or forced to have to choose a life of servitude just to survive if they were sold young.

Not to mention that when rival tribes were conquered their women and children could be taken as conquests of war....essentially making the women into sex slaves as they could be forced to marry their captives.
http://www.evilbible.com/Rape.htm

Some of the passages linked in the above also strongly hint that war slaves aren't under the same rules as other slaves.

[Sweetdeath]

Biblical slavery is not synonomous with American slavery.

Please explain to me how it is any different from ownership of a human being in any point in history?

How is having the option to go free after 7 years synonomous with what you are alluding too?

they are still being OWNED for at least seven years??

[Sweetdeath]

I've read that evil bible section, Whitney.  It totally made me sick!